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NEW QUESTION: 1
Jerry Edwards is an analyst with DeLeon Analytics. He is currently advising the CFO of Anderson Corp., a multinational manufacturing corporation based in Newark, New Jersey, USA. Jackie Palmer is Edwards's assistant. Palmer is well versed in risk management, having worked at a large multinational bank for the last ten years prior to coming to Anderson.
Anderson has received a $2 million note with a duration of 4.0 from Weaver Tools for a shipment delivered last week. Weaver markets tools and machinery from manufacturers of Anderson's size. Edwards states that in order to effectively hedge the price risk of this instrument, Anderson should sell a series of interest rate calls. Palmer states that an alternative hedge for the note would be to enter an interest rate swap as the fixed-rate payer.
As well as selling products from a Swiss plant in Europe, Anderson sells products in Switzerland itself. As a result, Anderson has quarterly cash flows of 12,000,000 Swiss franc (CHF). In order to convert these cash flows into dollars, Edwards suggests that Anderson enter into a currency swap without an exchange of notional principal. Palmer contacts a currency swap dealer with whom they have dealt in the past and finds the following exchange rate and annual swap interest rates:
Exchange Rate (CHF per dollar) 1.24
Swap interest rate in U.S. dollars 2.80%
Swap interest rate in Swiss franc 6.60%
Discussing foreign exchange rate risk in general, Edwards states that it is transaction exposure that is most often hedged, because the amount to be hedged is contractual and certain. Economic exposure, he states, is less certain and thus harder to hedge.
To finance their U.S. operations, Anderson issued a S10 million fixed-rate bond in the United States five years ago. The bond had an original maturity often years and now has a modified duration of 4.0. Edwards states that Anderson should enter a 5-year semiannual pay floating swap with a notional principal of about
$11.4 million to take advantage of falling interest rates. The duration of the fixed-rate side of the swap is equal to 75% of its maturity or 3.75 (= 0.75 x 5). The duration of the floating side of the swap is 0.25.
Palmer states that Anderson's position in the swap will have a negative duration.
For another client of DeLeon, Edwards has assigned Palmer the task of estimating the interest rate sensitivity of the client's portfolios. The client's portfolio consists of positions in both U.S. and British bonds.
The relevant information for estimating (he duration contribution of the British bond and the portfolio's total duration is provided below.
U.S. dollar bond $275,000
British bond $155,000
British yield beta 1.40
Duration of U.S. bond 4.0
Duration of British bond 8.5
When discussing portfolio management with clients, Edwards recommends the use of emerging market bonds to add value to a core-plus strategy. He explains the characteristics of emerging market debt to Palmer by stating:
1. "The performance of emerging market debt has been quite resilient over time. After crises in the debt markets, emerging market bonds quickly recover after a crisis, so long-term returns can be poor."
2. "Emerging market debt is quite volatile due in part to the nature of political risk in these markets. It is therefore important that the analyst monitor the risk of these markets. I prefer to measure the risk of emerging market bonds with the standard deviation because it provides the best representation of risk in these markets." Regarding Edward's statements concerning the transaction exposure of currency risk, which of the following best describes his statement?
A. It is inaccurate because transaction exposure is very uncertain.
B. It is inaccurate because firms more frequently hedge translation exposure.
C. It accurately describes firms' currency exposures and hedging practices.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The statement is accurate. Transaction exposure is from transactions already entered into and the amount to hedge is thus known. Transaction exposures are the most commonly hedged exposures of a firm.
Economic risk, the relationship between changing exchange rates and asset values, is not contractual and the amount to hedge is thus less certain, making it harder to hedge. Translation risk refers to the effect of exchange rate changes on the income statement and balance sheet and is often not hedged. (Study Session 15, LOS 42.f)

NEW QUESTION: 2
You are the project manager of the GHY Project. This project is scheduled to last for one year and has a BAC of $4,500,000. You are currently 45 percent complete with this project, though you are
supposed to be at your second milestone, which accounts for half of the project completion. There have been some errors in the project, which has caused you to spend $2,073,654. Based on the budget at completion, what is this project's to-complete performance index?
A. 0.98
B. -$108,120
C. 1.02
D. $2,500.000
Answer: C
Explanation:
The to-complete performance index shows the likelihood of reaching the project objectives based on the current performance. The formula is (BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC) for a result of 1.02. The higher the value over 1 the less likely the project is to reach its objectives based on the current performance.To-complete Performance Index (TCPI) is the measured projection of the anticipated performance required to achieve either the BAC or the EA
C. TCPI indicates the future required cost efficiency needed to achieve a target EAC (Estimate At
Complete).Once approved, the EAC supersedes the BAC as the cost performance goal. Any
significant difference between TCPI and the CPI needed to meet the EAC should be accounted for
by management in their forecast of the final cost. The formula for TCPI is as follows: TCPI =
{(BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC)}
Answer option B is incorrect. This is the cost performance index for this project.
Answer option A is incorrect. This is the expected variance at completion.
Answer option C is incorrect. This is not a valid answer for this question.

NEW QUESTION: 3
Which five things should the administrator verify after performing maintenance or replacing a blade server? (Choose five.)
A. blade server status
B. CPU status
C. hard drive status
D. host OS boot status
E. fan and power status
F. memory DIMM status
G. mezzanine card status
Answer: A,B,C,E,F

NEW QUESTION: 4
How can a Citrix Administrator provide two-factor authentication with tokens in a
XenDesktop with NetScaler Gateway environment?
A. Create a SAML IDP policy and bind it to the existing virtual server.
B. Configure a RADIUS authentication policy and bind it to the existing virtual server.
C. Create an authorization policy and bind it to the existing virtual server.
D. Configure a TACACS authentication policy and bind it to the existing virtual server.
Answer: D


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