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NEW QUESTION: 1
注:この質問は、同じシナリオを使用する一連の質問の一部です。 あなたの便宜のために、シナリオは各質問で繰り返されます。 各質問はそれぞれ異なる目標と答えの選択を提示しますが、シナリオの本文はこのシリーズの各質問でまったく同じです。
次のテーブルを含むDB1という名前のデータベースがあります。Customer、CustomerToAccountBridge、およびCustomerDetails。 3つのテーブルはSalesスキーマの一部です。 データベースには、Websiteという名前のスキーマも含まれています。 次のTransact-SQLステートメントを実行して、Customerテーブルを作成します。

CustomerStatus列の値は、アクティブな顧客の場合と同じです。 Account1Status列とAccount2Status列の値は、アクティブなアカウントの場合と同じです。 次の表は、Customerテーブルから選択された列と行を示しています。

Website.Customerという名前のビューとSales.FessionalCustomersという名前のビューを作成する予定です。
Website.Customerは、次の要件を満たす必要があります。
* アクティブな顧客のCustomerName列とCustomerNumber列へのユーザーアクセスを許可します。
* ビューが参照する列への変更を許可します。 変更されたデータはビューを通して見える必要があります。
* ビューがMicrosoft SQL Serverの複製の一部として公開されないようにする。
Sales.F Female.Customersは次の要件を満たす必要があります。
* ユーザーに、CustomerName、Address、City、State、PostalCodeの各列へのアクセスを許可します。
* ビューが参照する列への変更を禁止します。
* ビューフィルタに準拠しているビューによる更新のみを許可します。
次のストアドプロシージャがあります。spDeleteCustAcctRelationshipおよびspUpdateCustomerSummary。
spUpdateCustomerSummaryストアドプロシージャは、次のTransact-SQLステートメントを実行して作成しました。

顧客アカウントの概要を変更するには、spUpdateCustomerSummaryストアドプロシージャを実行します。
他のストアドプロシージャは、CustomerToAccountBridgeテーブルからレコードを削除するために、spDeleteCustAcctRelationshipを呼び出します。
Sales.FraulCustomersを作成する必要があります。
どのようにビュー定義を完成させるべきですか? 回答するには、適切なTransact-SQLセグメントを正しい場所にドラッグします。 各Transact_SQLセグメントは、1回、複数回、またはまったく使用しないことができます。 コンテンツを表示するには、ペイン間の分割バーをドラッグするか、スクロールする必要があります。

Answer:
Explanation:

Explanation

Box 1:WITH SCHEMABINDING:
SCHEMABINDING binds the view to the schema of the underlying table or tables. When SCHEMABINDING is specified, the base table or tables cannot be modified in a way that would affect the view definition.
Box 2:Box 2: WITH CHECK OPTION
CHECK OPTION forces all data modification statements executed against the view to follow the criteria set within select_statement. When a row is modified through a view, the WITH CHECK OPTION makes sure the data remains visible through the view after the modification is committed.
Note: Sales.Female.Customers must meet the following requirements:
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187956.aspx

NEW QUESTION: 2
What is the difference between Advisory and Regulatory security policies?
A. regulatory policies are high level policy, while advisory policies are very detailed
B. Advisory policies are not mandated. Regulatory policies must be implemented.
C. there is no difference between them
D. Advisory policies are mandated while Regulatory policies are not
Answer: B
Explanation:
Advisory policies are security polices that are not mandated to be followed but are strongly suggested, perhaps with serious consequences defined for failure to follow them (such as termination, a job action warning, and so forth). A company with such policies wants most employees to consider these policies mandatory.
Most policies fall under this broad category.
Advisory policies can have many exclusions or application levels. Thus, these policies can control some employees more than others, according to their roles and responsibilities within that organization. For example, a policy that requires a certain procedure for transaction processing might allow for an alternative procedure under certain, specified conditions.
Regulatory
Regulatory policies are security policies that an organization must implement due to compliance, regulation, or other legal requirements. These companies might be financial institutions, public utilities, or some other type of organization that operates in the public interest. These policies are usually very detailed and are specific to the industry in which the organization operates.
Regulatory polices commonly have two main purposes:
1 . To ensure that an organization is following the standard procedures or base practices of operation in its specific industry
2 . To give an organization the confidence that it is following the standard and accepted industry policy
Informative
Informative policies are policies that exist simply to inform the reader. There are no implied or specified requirements, and the audience for this information could be certain internal
(within the organization) or external parties. This does not mean that the policies are authorized for public consumption but that they are general enough to be distributed to external parties (vendors accessing an extranet, for example) without a loss of confidentiality.
References:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten
Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Page 12, Chapter 1: Security
Management Practices.
also see:
The CISSP Prep Guide:Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security by Ronald L.
Krutz, Russell Dean Vines, Edward M. Stroz
also see:
http://i-data-recovery.com/information-security/information-security-policies-standards- guidelines-and-procedures

NEW QUESTION: 3
Ann, the software security engineer, works for a major software vendor. Which of the following practices should be implemented to help prevent race conditions, buffer overflows, and other similar vulnerabilities prior to each production release?
A. Input validation
B. Product baseline report
C. Patch regression testing
D. Code review
Answer: D
Explanation:
The problems listed in this question can be caused by problems with the application code. Reviewing the code will help to prevent the problems.
The purpose of code review is to look at all custom written code for holes that may exist. The review needs also to examine changes that the code-most likely in the form of a finished application-may make: configuration files, libraries, and the like. During this examination, look for threats such as opportunities for injection to occur (SQL, LDAP, code, and so on), cross-site request forgery, and authentication. Code review is often conducted as a part of gray box testing. Looking at source code can often be one of the easiest ways to find weaknesses within the application. Simply reading the code is known as manual assessment, whereas using tools to scan the code is known as automated assessment.
Incorrect Answers:
A. A product baseline report is a report that compares the current state of the product to the original product specification. It is not used to prevent race conditions, buffer overflows, and other similar vulnerabilities in an application.
B. Input validation can improve application performance by catching malformed input in the application that could cause problems with the output. For example, if a user is expected to enter a number into a field in the application, input validation can be used to ensure that the input is numeric and not text. It can also be used to prevent attacks such as cross-site scripting and SQL injection. It is not used to prevent race conditions, buffer overflows, and other similar vulnerabilities in an application.
C. Regression testing is a type of software testing that seeks to uncover new software bugs, or regressions, in existing functional and non-functional areas of a system after changes such as enhancements, patches or configuration changes, have been made to them.
The intent of regression testing is to ensure that changes such as those mentioned above have not introduced new faults. One of the main reasons for regression testing is to determine whether a change in one part of the software affects other parts of the software.
Application patches may be released after the original application has been released. However, a code review should be performed before the application is released in the first place.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p. 345
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Regression_testing

NEW QUESTION: 4
You have the following markup.

You need to ensure that flex1is displayed on the right of the page. flex2must be displayed directly to the left of flex1.
Which style should you add to the outer div?
A. flex-direction: row
B. flex-direction:row-reserve
C. flex-direction: column
D. flex-direction:column-reverse
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.w3schools.com/cssref/css3_pr_flex-direction.asp


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